point of information: while the word translated as "virgin" can be more correctly translated as "young woman," the use of that word for a young woman did, in fact, imply that she was also a virgin.
DON'T MAKE ME BUST OUT MY HEBREW BIBLE AND ANALYTICAL LEXICON, BITCHES!
and my retort to that is that if the prophecy intended to predict that the messiah would be born of a virgin, you would think that they would have been a little more specific than use a vague word that could mean either definition and might imply the virgin thing. a rational, contextual reading of the original text clearly seems to indicate that the original author meant only "young woman" and not "virgin".
let's get technical here. the prophecy that is specifically being referred to here is Isaiah 7:14, which reads, "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." the word virgin in the original hebrew was "`almah" which means "young woman" (and i stand corrected, it can have the implication of virginal status of the woman, but it is not the explicit meaning of the word). seeing as how hebrew at the time had another word "betulah" which did directly mean virgin, it would only make sense that the intent of the author was not to emphasize the un-sexed-up status of the mother, but rather that the name of the messiah would be immanuel.
to back this up is the fact that the gospels of mark and john both make no mention of the virgin birth of jesus. one would think that something like that would be worth at least a passing mention. to compound this problem, paul, (the author of a huge bulk of the new testament, aka saul of taursus) never mentions the virgin birth either. as a matter of fact, in galations 4:4 he wrote of jesus, "God sent his Son, born of a woman, born under the law." implying a normal birth, or in the least significant that he does not say virgin. then you also have romans 1:3 where paul refers to jesus, "who was descended from David according to the flesh." now all the accounts of jesus' genealogy trace back a connection to king david through joseph, and if this connection was "according to the flesh" it would seem to be that paul either did not know about or did not believe in the virgin birth.
all of this implies that the virgin birth was not an integral part of the story of jesus in the early days of christianity, and was later injected into some of the gospels in order to make them conform with the jewish prophecies of the messiah.
just saying.